Notes and Reviewers in Radiologic Technology: Examination in Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy / Radiographic Contrast

The ileocecal valve is normally located in which of the following body regions?(A) Right iliac (C) Right lumbar
(B) Left iliac (D) Hypogastric
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3. vertebral arteries.
(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
During intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate
1. filling of obstructed ureters.
2. the renal pelvis.
3. the superior calyces.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
The sigmoid colon is located in the
(A) left upper quadrant (LUQ). (C) right upper quadrant (RUQ).(B) left lower quadrant (LLQ). (D) right lower quadrant (RLQ).
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
(A) Radial flexion (C) AP oblique
(B) Ulnar flexion (D) AP.
The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the
(A) costal margin. (C) xiphoid tip.
(B) umbilicus. (D) fourth lumbar vertebra.
Which of the following positions would be obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table, and the central ray directed horizontally to the iliac crest?(A) Ventral decubitus position (C) Left lateral decubitus position
(B) Dorsal decubitus position (D) Right lateral decubitus position
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left axillary portion of the ribs?
(A) Left lateral (C) LPO
(B) PA (D) RPO
The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as
(A) asphyxia (C) atelectasis(B) aspiration (D) asystole
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
3. patient may be examined in the erect position.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the right axillary ribs?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate
1. pneumothorax.
2. foreign body.
3. atelectasis.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made
(A) on normal inspiration. (C) on expiration.
(B) on inspiration, second breath. (D) during shallow breathing.
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the
1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette.
2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible.
3. hand lateral and in internal rotation.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
(A) median sagittal plane. (C) sagittal plane.(B) midcoronal plane. (D) transverse plane.
In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?
(A) Lateral oblique foot (C) Lateral foot(B) Medial oblique foot (D) Weight-bearing foot
The contrast media of choice for use in myelography are
(A) ionic non-water-soluble. (C) nonionic water-soluble.
(B) ionic water-soluble. (D) gas.
A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?
1. Esophagus
2. Pylorus
3. Ilium
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located
(A) high, transverse, and lateral. (C) high, vertical, and toward the midline.
(B) low, transverse, and lateral. (D) low, vertical, and toward the midline.
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
(A) Semilunar / trochlear notch (C) Capitulum
(B) Radial head (D) Trochlea
Which of the following precaution(s) should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?
1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided.
3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination.
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n)
(A) esophagram. (C) small-bowel series.
(B) upper GI series. (D) ERCP.
Which of the following would be the best choice for a right shoulder exam to rule out fracture?
(A) Internal and external rotation (C) AP and AP axial
(B) AP and tangential (D) AP and scapular Y
T-tube cholangiography is performed
(A) preoperatively. (C) postoperatively.
(B) during surgery. (D) with a Chiba needle.
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
(A) Foramen magnum (C) Pharynx
(B) Trachea (D) C4
The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?(A) Medial (C) Ulnar
(B) Lateral (D) Volar
Which of the following vertebral groups form(s) lordotic curve(s)?
1. Cervical
2. Thoracic
3. Lumbar
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed
(A) parallel to C4. (C) 15º cephalad to C4.
(B) perpendicular to C4. (D) 15º caudad to C4.
Examination of the pars petrosae in the posterior profile position (Stenvers method) requires
1. the use of the IOML.
2. the MSP to be rotated 45º.
3. that the head rest on the forehead, nose, and chin.
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
1. The IOML is parallel to the film.
2. The MSP is perpendicular to the film.
3. The central ray enters 2 in superior to the external auditory meatus (EAM).
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
(A) Pyelonephrosis (C) Hydronephrosis
(B) Nephroptosis (D) Cystourethritis
In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the central ray is directed
(A) 1/2 in posterior to the anterior nasal spine. (C) 3/4 in distal to the nasion.
(B) 3/4 in posterior to the glabella. (D) 1/2 in anterior to the EAM.
Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?(A) Erect (C) Oblique
(B) Recumbent (D) Trendelenburg
Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?
(A) Intravenous urogram (C) Voiding cystourethrogram
(B) Retrograde pyelogram (D) Nephrotomogram
Which of the following is (are) recommended when positioning the patient for a lateral projection of the chest?
1. The patient should be examined upright.
2. The shoulders should be depressed.
3. The shoulders should be rolled forward.(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the
(A) cisterna magna.
(B) individual intervertebral disks.
(C) subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae.(D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
Which of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?
(A) AP recumbent, affected shoulder (C) AP erect, affected shoulder
(B) AP recumbent, both shoulders (D) AP erect, both shoulders
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
(A) Open-mouth projection (C) Flexion and extension laterals
(B) Moving mandible AP (D) Right and left bending AP
The two palpable bony landmarks that are generally used for accurate localization of the hip are the(A) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and symphysis pubis.
(B) iliac crest and greater trochanter.
(C) symphysis pubis and greater trochanter.
(D) iliac crest and symphysis pubis.
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ)?
1. Gallbladder
2. Hepatic flexure
3. Cecum
(A) 1 only (C) 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity venography?
1. The patient is often examined in the semierect position.
2. Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot.
3. Filming begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture.
2. a foreign body.
3. soft tissue.
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?
(A) Nephrotomography (C) Cystourethrography(B) Retrograde urography (D) IV urography
Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?
1. A fluoroscopic unit with spot film and tilt table capabilities
2. A fiberoptic endoscope
3. Polyethylene catheters
(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Operative cholangiography may be performed to
1. visualize biliary stones or a neoplasm.
2. determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla.
3. examine the patency of the biliary tract.
(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn meniscus.
2. Baker's cyst.
3. torn rotator cuff.(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image recorder?
(A) Coracoid (C) Olecranon
(B) Coronoid (D) Glenoid
Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel?
1. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
2. stent placement
3. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
To make the patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should
1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intraabdominal pressure.
2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm.
3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98 to 105ºF) to aid in retention.
(A) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?
(A) Mediolateral (C) Lateral weight-bearing
(B) Lateromedial (D) 30º medial oblique
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
(A) AP (C) Medial oblique
(B) Lateral oblique (D) Lateral
Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LAO position?
(A) Hepatic flexure (C) Sigmoid colon(B) Splenic flexure (D) Ileocecal valve
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves
1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla.
2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct.
3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
(A) eversion. (C) abduction.
(B) inversion. (D) adduction.
In the posterior profile projection (Stenvers method) of the petrous pyramids, the
1. central ray is directed 12º cephalad.
2. MSP is 45º to the film.
3. head rests on the zygoma, nose, and chin.(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
When the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally, the patient is said to be in the
(A) Trendelenburg position. (C) decubitus position.
(B) Fowler's position. (D) Sims position.
Which of the following is located at the interspace between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae?
(A) Manubrium (C) Sternal angle
(B) Jugular notch (D) Xiphoid process
In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5º cephalad in order to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space?
(A) Lateral femoral condyle (C) Patella(B) Medial femoral condyle (D) Tibial eminence
The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the
(A) fifth thoracic vertebra. (C) T4-5 interspace.(B) T2-3 interspace. (D) costal margin.
The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the
(A) coronal plane 45º to the film. (C) coronal plane 70º to the film.
(B) midsagittal plane 45º to the film. (D) midsagittal plane 70º to the film.
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in(A) the recumbent position. (C) the anatomic position.
(B) the erect position. (D) Fowler's position.
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
(A) Fifth metacarpal (C) Distal radius(B) First metacarpal (D) Distal ulna
The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the
(A) transverse processes. (C) laminae.
(B) vertebral arches. (D) pedicles.
Which of the following is recommended in order to better demonstrate the tarso-metatarsal joints in the dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
(A) Invert the foot (C) Angle the central ray 10º posteriorly
(B) Evert the foot (D) Angle the central ray 10º anteriorly
The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh
(A) adducted 25º from the horizontal. (C) adducted 40º from the horizontal.
(B) abducted 25º from the vertical. (D) abducted 40º from the vertical.
Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Intertrochanteric crest
3. Intertubercular groove
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only
Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior:
1. Trachea
2. Apex of heart
3. Esophagus
(A) Trachea, esophagus, apex of heart (C) Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus
(B) Esophagus, trachea, apex of heart (D) Apex of heart, esophagus, trachea
The usual patient preparation for an upper GI series is
(A) clear fluids 8 h prior to exam. (C) enemas until clear before exam.(B) NPO after midnight. (D) light breakfast the day of the exam.
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is
(A) red marrow. (C) cortical tissue.(B) yellow marrow. (D) cancellous tissue.
In order to better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, the
(A) skull is obliqued toward the affected side.
(B) skull is obliqued away from the affected side.(C) central ray is angled cephalad.
(D) central ray is angled caudad.
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?
1. Short, wide, transverse heart
2. High and peripheral large bowel
3. Diaphragm positioned low(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral disk spaces
2. C3-7 cervical bodies
3. Apophyseal joints
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?(A) LPO (C) Left lateral
(B) RPO (D) PA
Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
(A) position of the organ. (C) diverticula.
(B) size and shape of the organ. (D) gastric or bowel mucosa.
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
1. Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following positions is required in order to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity?

(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up (C) AP Trendelenburg(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down (D) AP supine
When the erect position is requested as part of an IVP, it is used to demonstrate
(A) the adrenal glands. (C) kidney mobility.
(B) the renal surfaces. (D) the bladder neck.
Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
(A) AP (C) Medial oblique
(B) Lateral (D) Lateral oblique
Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the
(A) lateral projection of the facial bones.(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
(C) posteroanterior projection with a 15º caudal angle.
(D) Sweet's localization method.
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
(A) Retrograde pyelogram (C) Hysterosalpingogram
(B) Voiding cystourethrogram (D) Myelogram
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
1. The sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
2. The sternum is seen lateral without rotation.
3. Ten anterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?
(A) AP (C) 30º RPO
(B) Lateral (D) 45º LPO
Angulation of the central ray may be required
1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
3. in order to project through certain articulations.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate
(A) humeral dislocation. (C) osteoarthritis.(B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears. (D) acromioclavicular joint separation.
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is visualized.
2. talofibular joint is visualized.
3. tibia and fibula are superimposed.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
What should you do if you discover while taking the patient history that a patient scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) takes Glucophage (metformin hydrochloride) daily?
1. Proceed with the exam.
2. Reschedule the exam until the patient has been off Glucophage for 48h.
3. Instruct the patient to withhold the Glucophage for 48 h after the exam.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are part of the bony thorax?
1. 12 thoracic vertebrae
2. Scapulae
3. 24 ribs
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
In order to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45º(A) toward the affected side. (C) with the arm at the side in the anatomic position.
(B) away from the affected side. (D) with the arm in external rotation.
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous, glandular breast tissue?(A) A postpubertal adolescent (C) A menopausal woman
(B) A 20 year old with one previous pregnancy (D) A postmenopausal 65 year old
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
(A) Synarthrodial (C) Amphiarthrodial(B) Diarthrodial (D) Cartilaginous
Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?
1. The heads of the first row of phalanges
2. The cuboid
3. The cuneiforms
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
(A) Barium examinations (C) Skull radiography
(B) Spine radiography (D) Emergency and trauma radiography
Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing breast exposure during scoliosis examinations?
1. Use of a high-speed imaging system
2. Use of breast shields
3. Use of compensating filtration
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70º (rather than the desired 90º). How should the central ray be directed?
(A) Perpendicular to the film (C) 20º caudad(B) Parallel to the floor (D) 20º cephalad
Prior to the start of an IV urogram, which of the following procedures should be carried out?
1. Have patient empty the bladder.
2. Review the patient's allergy history.
3. Check the patient's creatinine level.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
What angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and the film in the parietoorbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal?
(A) 90º (C) 53º
(B) 37º (D) 45º
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of both colic flexures?
(A) LAO and RPO (C) Left lateral decubitus
(B) Lateral (D) AP or PA erect
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the(A) right main bronchus. (C) esophagus.
(B) left main bronchus. (D) proximal stomach.
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called
(A) hypertension. (C) pulse.
(B) elasticity. (D) pressure.
Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph?
1. A ring when performing hand radiography
2. An antishock garment
3. A pneumatic splint
(A) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, and 3

Part II:

1. Which of the following positions would be obtained with the patient lying prone recumbent on the radiographic table, and the central ray directed horizontally?(A) Ventral decubitus position (C) Left lateral decubitus position
  (B) Dorsal decubitus position (D) Right lateral decubitus position
2. Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
  (A) Distal interphalangeal joints (C) Metacarpals
  (B) Proximal interphalangeal joints (D) Radial styloid process
3. The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and(A) in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image recorder.
  (B) in a slight oblique position, affected side away from the image recorder.
  (C) erect and weight-bearing.
  (D) erect, with and without weights.
4. When the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally, the patient is said to be in the?
  (A) Trendelenburg position. (C) decubitus position.
  (B) Fowler's position. (D) Sims position.
5. Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal?(A) First cuneiform (C) Navicular
  (B) Third cuneiform (D) Cuboid
6. The sigmoid colon is located in the?
  (A) left upper quadrant (LUQ). (C) right upper quadrant (RUQ).(B) left lower quadrant (LLQ). (D) right lower quadrant (RLQ).
7. With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
  (A) Fifth metacarpal (C) Distal radius(B) First metacarpal (D) Distal ulna
8. The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is?
  (A) cephalad. (C) proximal.
  (B) caudad. (D) medial.
9. Which of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?
  (A) AP recumbent, affected shoulder (C) AP erect, affected shoulder(B) AP recumbent, both shoulders (D) AP erect, both shoulders
10. Which of the following is an important consideration in order to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?(A) Oblique the hand no more than 45º.
  (B) Use a support sponge for the phalanges.
  (C) Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the film.
  (D) Utilize ulnar flexion.
11. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
  1. Scapular Y projection
  2. Inferosuperior axial
  3. Transthoracic lateral
  (A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
  (B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
12. The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
  (A) median sagittal plane. (C) sagittal plane.(B) midcoronal plane. (D) transverse plane.
13. Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?
  1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally.
  2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed.
  3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.
  (A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
  (B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
14. Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?
  1. Short, wide, transverse heart
  2. High and peripheral large bowel
  3. Diaphragm positioned low(A) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
  (B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
15. A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
  1. a fracture.
  2. a foreign body.
  3. soft tissue.
  (A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
  (B) 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
16. The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates
  1. an oblique projection of the shoulder.
  2. anterior or posterior dislocation.
  3. a lateral projection of the shoulder.
  (A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only
17. When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should the AP projection be obtained?
  1. With humerus parallel to film, central ray perpendicular
  2. With forearm parallel to film, central ray perpendicular
  3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, central ray perpendicular
  (A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
18. To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the
  1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette.
  2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible.
  3. hand lateral and in internal rotation.
  (A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
  (B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
19. Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm?
  (A) PA and medial oblique (C) PA and lateral
  (B) AP and lateral oblique (D) AP and lateral
20. The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located
  (A) high, transverse, and lateral. (C) high, vertical, and toward the midline.
  (B) low, transverse, and lateral. (D) low, vertical, and toward the midline.
21. All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except (A) weight-bearing. (C) LAO.
  (B) RAO. (D) PA.
22. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?
  (A) Lateral wrist (C) Radial flexion(B) Ulnar flexion (D) Carpal tunnel
23. In order to evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
  (A) rest on the cassette for immobilization.(B) must be supported parallel to the film.
  (C) are radiographed in natural flexion.
  (D) are radiographed in palmar flexion.
24. What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient?
  (A) Superior and medial (C) Inferior and medial
  (B) Superior and lateral (D) Inferior and lateral
25. In order to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45º(A) toward the affected side.
  (B) away from the affected side.
  (C) with the arm at the side in the anatomic position.
  (D) with the arm in external rotation.
26. Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle, with the patient in the AP recumbent position on the x-ray table?
  (A) 10 to 15º caudad (C) 25 to 30º cephalad
  (B) 10 to 15º cephalad (D) 25 to 30º caudad
27. What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image recorder?
  (A) Coracoid (C) Olecranon
  (B) Coronoid (D) Glenoid
28. Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?
  1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
  2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
  3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.
  (A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3 only
29. Which of the following will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
  (A) AP (C) Medial oblique
  (B) Lateral (D) Lateral oblique
30. Which of the following would be the best choice for a right shoulder exam to rule out fracture?
  (A) Internal and external rotation (C) AP and AP axial
  (B) AP and tangential (D) AP and scapular Y
31. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the LUQ?
  1. Stomach
  2. Spleen
  3. Cecum
  (A) 1 only (C) 1 and 2 only
  (B) 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
32. Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?
  1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
  2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
  3. Posterior or backward displacement
  (A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
  (B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
33. The medial oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the?
  1. olecranon process within the olecranon fossa.
  2. radial head free of superimposition.
  3. coronoid process free of superimposition.
  (A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
  (B) 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
34. What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?
  (A) Semilunar / trochlear notch (C) Capitulum
  (B) Radial head (D) Trochlea
35. In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?
  (A) AP (C) Medial oblique
  (B) Lateral oblique (D) Lateral
36. The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
  (A) Scapular Y (C) Medial oblique elbow
  (B) AP scapula (D) Lateral oblique elbow
37. Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation?
  1. AP humerus
  2. Lateral forearm
  3. Lateral humerus
  (A) 1 only (C) 3 only
  (B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
38. The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?(A) Medial (C) Ulnar
  (B) Lateral (D) Volar\
39. Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
  (A) Radial flexion (C) AP oblique
  (B) Ulnar flexion (D) AP
40. Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the
  1. atlantoaxial joint
  2. radioulnar joint
  3. temporomandibulon joint
  (A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 only
41. For the AP projection of the scapula, the?
  1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body.
  2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated.
  3. exposure is made during quiet breathing.
  (A) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only
  (B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
42. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ)?
  1. Gallbladder
  2. Hepatic flexure
  3. Cecum
  (A) 1 only (C) 3 only
  (B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
43. In the lateral projection of the scapula, the
  1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed.
  2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed.
  3. patient may be examined in the erect position.
  (A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
  (B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
44. Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
  (A) eversion. (C) abduction.
  (B) inversion. (D) adduction
45. Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
  (A) Tangential (C) Transthoracic lateral
  (B) AP axial (D) PA oblique scapular Y
46. Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa?
  (A) AP (C) Medial oblique
  (B) Lateral (D) Lateral oblique
47. The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low, midline stomach and gallbladder is the?(A) asthenic. (C) sthenic.
  (B) hyposthenic. (D) hypersthenic.
48. A patient in a recumbent position with the head lower than the feet is said to be in which of the following positions?(A) Trendelenburg (C) Sims
  (B) Fowler's (D) Stenver's
49. In what elbow view is the palm of the hand flat on the tabletop?
(A) AP elbow (C) Lateral oblique elbow

(B) Lateral elbow (D) Medial oblique elbow

50. Where should the central ray enter the hand on a lateral hand view?

(A) base of the proximal phalange of the 2nd ray

(B) base of the proximal phalange of the 3rd ray

(C) head of the 2nd metacarpal

(D) head of the 3rd metacarpal

Part III:

1. What is the anatomical name for the knee joint?

A. Tibiofemoral joint

B. Coxalfemoral joint

C. Talocurural joint

D. Sacroiliac joint

2. Which type of joint is the tibiofemoral?

A. Ball-and-socket

B. Ellipsoid

C. Modified hinge

D. Hinge

3. What is the superficial bone extending down the front of the leg?

A. Femur

B. Fibula

C. Tibia

D. Patella

4. What is the name of the more lateral bone, buried deep to muscle tissue, extending down the leg?

A. Femur

B. Fibula

C. Tibia

D. Patella

5. What bony structure sinks between the proximal tibia and femoral condyles during flexion of the knee?

A. Talus

B. Head of the fibula

C. Tibial tuberosity

D. Patella

6. What is the bony landmark distal to the patella?

A. Adductor tubercle

B. Head of the fibula

C. Tibial tuberosity

D. Femoral condyle

7. When you place your fingers on either side of the patella and slide inferiorly until you feel an edge of bone, what landmark are you palpating?

A. Head of the fibula

B. Tibial plateaus

C. Tibial tuberosity

D. Tibial tubercle

8. How many bones comprise of the foot?

A. 14

B. 18

C. 24

D. 28

9. What is the name of the bone that forms the heel of the foot?

A. Talus

B. Calcaneus

C. Cuboid

D. Navicular

10. Which bone articulates with the tibia and fibula?

A. Cuneiform

B. Calcaneus

C. Talus

D. Navicular

11. What are those large, conspicuous knobs on either side of the ankle?

A. Tarsals

B. Malleolar grooves

C. Lateral and medical malleoli

D. Metatarsals

12. Which bony landmark is located directly between the navicular tubercle and medical maleolus?

A. Head of the talus

B. Sustentaculum tali

C. Trochlea of the talus

D. Peroneal tubercle

13. The foramen magnum is located in this bone.

A. sphenoid

B. ethmoid

C. temporal

D. occipital

E. 1st cervical vertebra

14. The mandible articulates with this bone:

A. Zygomatic

B. Maxillae

C. Temporal

D. Sphenoid

15. The thinnest portion of the cranium is located here:

A. Frontal sinus

B. Ciribrum plate

C. Occipital condyle

D. Sagittal suture

16. . How many bones are in the vertebral column?

A. 26

B. 24

C. 22

D. 20

17. The largest sinuses in the skull are the:

A. Mastoid sinuses

B. Sphenoid sinuses

C. Maxillary sinuses

D. Frontal sinuses

18. How many cervical vertebrae are in the spinal column?

A. 5

B. 7

C. 9

D. 12

19. Which cranial bone articulates with all other cranial bones?

A. Frontal

B. Occipital

C. Temporal

D. Sphenoid

E. Ethmoid

20. Your "ear hole" is located in which cranial bone:

A. Sphenoid

B. Parietal

C. Occipital

D. Zygomatic

E. Temporal

21. The largest portion of the sternum is the:

A. Manubrium

B. Gladiolus

C. Xiphoid process

D. Jugular notch

22. How many bones are in the axial skeleton?

A. 80

B. 90

C. 102

D. 120

23. This bone forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum:

A. Ethmoid

B. Palatine

C. Vomer

D. Inferior nasal concha

24. Most of the "cheek" of the face is formed by this bone:

A. Zygomatic

B. Facial

C. Maxilla

D. Temporal

25. The rounded bony process that can be palpated behind your ear is the:

A. Occipital

B. Mastoid process

C. Mandibular process

D. Occipital protuberance

26. Premature closure of the cranial sutures during infancy can result in this disorder:

A. Cleft palate

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Microchephalus

D. Spina bifida

27. How many pairs of "false" ribs are in the thoracic cage?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

28. Where is the hyoid bone located?

A. In the nasal cavity

B. Just superior to the larynx

C. In the middle ear

D. At the proximal portion of the coccyx

29. Which of the following structures is lacking from all thoracic vertebrae?

A. Superior articular process

B. Pedicle

C. Transverse process

D. Transverse costal facet

E. Transverse foramen

30. This structure houses the pituitary gland:

A. Crista galli

B. Ciribrum plate

C. Sella turcica

D. Sphenoid sinus

E. Foramen rotundum

31. Which of the following structures is incorrectly paired with its corresponding bone?

A. Dens: C1

B. Pterygoid process: sphenoid

C. Clavicular notch: sternum

D. Coronoid process: mandible

E. Coronoid process: Mandible

32. This passageway connects the nasal cavity and the orbit:

A. Hypoglossal canal

B. Inferior orbital fissure

C. Lacrimal canal

D. Infraorbital foramen

33. How many total bones make up the cranium?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 12

34. This spike-like structure is located at the inferior portion of the sternum:

A. Styloid process

B. Xiphoid process

C. Sternal process

D. Spinous process

35. This single bone is located medially to the eyes and forms the roof of the nasal cavity:

A. Sphenoud

B. Vomer

C. Nasal

D. Ethmoid

36. This cranial suture separates the occipital and parietal bones:

A. Lamboidal

B. Coronal

C. Sagittal

D. Squamous

37. This bony structure connects the bodies of most vertebra to the laminae:

A. Transverse process

B. Pedicle

C. Spinous process

D. Dens

38. Which facial bone articulates with all other facial bones except the mandible?

A. Maxilla

B. Vomer

C. Zygomatic

D. Palatine

E. Lacrimal

39. Which of the following bones does not directly contribute to the formation of the orbit?

A. Vomer

B. Zygomatic

C. Sphenoid

D. Ethmoid

E. Palatine

40. The occipital bone is where this structure is located:

A. Ciribrum plate

B. Optic foramen

C. Superior orbital fissure

D. Foramen magnum

E. Carotid canal

41. Which of the following bones does the temporal bone NOT articulate with?

A. Zygomatic

B. Maxillae

C. Frontal

D. Sphenoid

42. How many bones are in the vertebral column?

A. 26

B. 24

C. 22

D. 20

43. The largest sinuses in the skull are the:

A. Mastoid sinuses

B. Sphenoid sinuses

C. Maxillary sinuses

D. Frontal sinuses

44. This cranial suture separates the occipital and parietal bones:

A. Lamboidal

B. Coronal

C. Sagittal

D. Squamous

45. This single bone is located medially to the eyes and forms the roof of the nasal cavity:

A. Sphenoid

B. Vomer

C. Nasal

D. Ethmoid

46. How many pairs of "floating" ribs are in the thoracic cage?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

47. Which of the following is not a cranial bone?

A. Sphenoid

B. Ethmoid

C. Parietal

D.Maxilla

48. The suture between the parietal and temporal bones is the ________ suture.

A. Coronal

B. Lambdoid

C. Sagittal

D. Squamous

49. The mastoid process belongs to which bone?

A. Sphenoid

B. Ethmoid

C. Temporal

D. Frontal

50. This vertebra has no body.

A. Atlas

B. Axis

C. Thoracic

D. Sacrum

Part IV:

Notes and Reviewers in Radiologic Technology

Lunes, Agosto 3, 2015

Examination in Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy / Radiographic Contrast

4 (na) komento: