The
ileocecal valve is normally located in which of the following body
regions?(A)
Right iliac (C)
Right lumbar
(B) Left iliac (D) Hypogastric
The
four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1.
brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3.
vertebral arteries.
(A) 1 and 2 only (C)
2 and 3 only
(B)
1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
During
intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally
recommended to demonstrate
1. filling of obstructed ureters.
2.
the renal pelvis.
3. the superior calyces.
(A) 1 only (C)
1 and 3 only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
The
sigmoid colon is located in the
(A) left upper quadrant
(LUQ). (C) right upper quadrant (RUQ).(B)
left lower quadrant (LLQ). (D)
right lower quadrant (RLQ).
Which
of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the
carpal pisiform free of superimposition?
(A) Radial
flexion (C)
AP oblique
(B)
Ulnar flexion (D) AP.
The
uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same
level as the
(A) costal margin. (C) xiphoid tip.
(B)
umbilicus. (D)
fourth lumbar vertebra.
Which
of the following positions would be obtained with the patient lying
prone recumbent on the radiographic table, and the central ray
directed horizontally to the iliac crest?(A)
Ventral decubitus position (C)
Left lateral decubitus position
(B) Dorsal decubitus
position (D) Right lateral decubitus position
Which
of the following positions will best demonstrate the left axillary
portion of the ribs?
(A) Left lateral (C)
LPO
(B)
PA (D) RPO
The
inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or
lungs is referred to as
(A) asphyxia (C) atelectasis(B)
aspiration (D)
asystole
In
the lateral projection of the scapula, the
1. vertebral and
axillary borders are superimposed.
2. acromion and coracoid
processes are superimposed.
3. patient may be examined in the
erect position.
(A) 1 only (C)
1 and 3 only
(B)
1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following positions will demonstrate the right axillary
ribs?
1. RAO
2. LAO
3. RPO
(A) 1 only (C)
2 and 3 only
(B)
1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Inspiration
and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to
demonstrate
1. pneumothorax.
2. foreign body.
3.
atelectasis.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2
only (D)
1, 2, and 3
To
best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made
(A) on
normal inspiration. (C)
on expiration.
(B)
on inspiration, second breath. (D) during shallow breathing.
To
demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s)
must be made with the
1. epicondyles perpendicular to the
cassette.
2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible.
3.
hand lateral and in internal rotation.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3
only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
The
plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into
anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
(A) median sagittal
plane. (C) sagittal plane.(B)
midcoronal plane. (D)
transverse plane.
In
which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and
tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated?
(A) Lateral
oblique foot (C) Lateral foot(B)
Medial oblique foot (D)
Weight-bearing foot
The
contrast media of choice for use in myelography are
(A) ionic
non-water-soluble. (C)
nonionic water-soluble.
(B)
ionic water-soluble. (D) gas.
A
patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in
order to demonstrate which of the following structures?
1.
Esophagus
2. Pylorus
3. Ilium
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3
only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
The
stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located
(A)
high, transverse, and lateral. (C) high, vertical, and toward the
midline.
(B) low, transverse, and lateral. (D)
low, vertical, and toward the midline.
What
portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the
elbow joint?
(A) Semilunar / trochlear notch (C) Capitulum
(B)
Radial head (D)
Trochlea
Which
of the following precaution(s) should be observed when radiographing
a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?
1.
When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity
should be performed by a physician.
2. The AP axiolateral
projection should be avoided.
3. To evaluate the entire region,
the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination.
(A)
1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B)
1 and 3 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Fluoroscopic
imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n)
(A)
esophagram. (C)
small-bowel series.
(B)
upper GI series. (D) ERCP.
Which
of the following would be the best choice for a right shoulder exam
to rule out fracture?
(A) Internal and external rotation (C) AP
and AP axial
(B) AP and tangential (D)
AP and scapular Y
T-tube
cholangiography is performed
(A) preoperatively. (C)
postoperatively.
(B)
during surgery. (D) with a Chiba needle.
At
what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?
(A) Foramen
magnum (C) Pharynx
(B) Trachea (D)
C4
The
fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand?(A)
Medial (C)
Ulnar
(B) Lateral (D) Volar
Which
of the following vertebral groups form(s) lordotic curve(s)?
1.
Cervical
2. Thoracic
3. Lumbar
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 2
only
(B) 2 only (D)
1 and 3 only
In
the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central
ray should be directed
(A) parallel to C4. (C)
15º cephalad to C4.
(B)
perpendicular to C4. (D) 15º caudad to C4.
Examination
of the pars petrosae in the posterior profile position (Stenvers
method) requires
1. the use of the IOML.
2. the MSP to be
rotated 45º.
3. that the head rest on the forehead, nose, and
chin.
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the
skull?
1. The IOML is parallel to the film.
2. The MSP is
perpendicular to the film.
3. The central ray enters 2 in
superior to the external auditory meatus (EAM).
(A) 1
only (C) 2 and 3 only(B)
1 and 3 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral
obstruction or stricture?
(A) Pyelonephrosis (C)
Hydronephrosis
(B)
Nephroptosis (D) Cystourethritis
In
a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the central ray is
directed
(A) 1/2 in posterior to the anterior nasal spine. (C)
3/4 in distal to the nasion.
(B)
3/4 in posterior to the glabella. (D) 1/2 in anterior to the EAM.
Which
of the following positions is essential in radiography of the
paranasal sinuses?(A)
Erect (C)
Oblique
(B) Recumbent (D) Trendelenburg
Which
of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral
reflux?
(A) Intravenous urogram (C)
Voiding cystourethrogram
(B)
Retrograde pyelogram (D) Nephrotomogram
Which
of the following is (are) recommended when positioning the patient
for a lateral projection of the chest?
1. The patient should be
examined upright.
2. The shoulders should be depressed.
3. The
shoulders should be rolled forward.(A)
1 only (C)
1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
In
myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the
(A)
cisterna magna.
(B) individual intervertebral disks.
(C)
subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar
vertebrae.(D)
subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
Which
of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular
separation?
(A) AP recumbent, affected shoulder (C) AP erect,
affected shoulder
(B) AP recumbent, both shoulders (D)
AP erect, both shoulders
Which
of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the
degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
(A) Open-mouth
projection (C)
Flexion and extension laterals
(B)
Moving mandible AP (D) Right and left bending AP
The
two palpable bony landmarks that are generally used for accurate
localization of the hip are the(A)
anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and symphysis pubis.
(B)
iliac crest and greater trochanter.
(C) symphysis pubis and
greater trochanter.
(D) iliac crest and symphysis pubis.
Which
of the following structures is (are) located in the right lower
quadrant (RLQ)?
1. Gallbladder
2. Hepatic flexure
3.
Cecum
(A) 1 only (C)
3 only
(B)
1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity
venography?
1. The patient is often examined in the semierect
position.
2. Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the
foot.
3. Filming begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly.
(A)
1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
A
lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to
evaluate
1. a fracture.
2. a foreign body.
3. soft
tissue.
(A) 1 only (C)
2 and 3 only
(B)
2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
Which
of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast
medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed
within the ureter?
(A) Nephrotomography (C)
Cystourethrography(B)
Retrograde urography (D)
IV urography
Which
of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?
1. A
fluoroscopic unit with spot film and tilt table capabilities
2. A
fiberoptic endoscope
3. Polyethylene catheters
(A) 1 and 2
only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Operative
cholangiography may be performed to
1. visualize biliary stones
or a neoplasm.
2. determine function of the hepatopancreatic
ampulla.
3. examine the patency of the biliary tract.
(A) 1
and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Knee
arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn
meniscus.
2. Baker's cyst.
3. torn rotator cuff.(A)
1 and 2 only (C)
2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
What
process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in
acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent
to the image recorder?
(A) Coracoid (C)
Olecranon
(B)
Coronoid (D) Glenoid
Which
of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase
the diameter of a stenosed vessel?
1. percutaneous transluminal
angioplasty (PTA)
2. stent placement
3. peripherally inserted
central catheter (PICC line)
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
To
make the patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast
barium enema (BE), the radiographer should
1. instruct the
patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intraabdominal
pressure.
2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing
deeply to reduce colonic spasm.
3. prepare a warm barium
suspension (98 to 105ºF) to aid in retention.
(A) 2 only (C)
2 and 3 only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Which
projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal
arch?
(A) Mediolateral (C)
Lateral weight-bearing
(B)
Lateromedial (D) 30º medial oblique
In
which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best
demonstrated?
(A) AP (C)
Medial oblique
(B)
Lateral oblique (D) Lateral
Which
of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best
demonstrated in the LAO position?
(A) Hepatic flexure (C)
Sigmoid colon(B)
Splenic flexure (D)
Ileocecal valve
Endoscopic
retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves
1.
cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla.
2. introduction of
contrast medium into the common bile duct.
3. introduction of
barium directly into the duodenum.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3
only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Movement
of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
(A)
eversion. (C) abduction.
(B) inversion. (D)
adduction.
In
the posterior profile projection (Stenvers method) of the petrous
pyramids, the
1. central ray is directed 12º cephalad.
2. MSP
is 45º to the film.
3. head rests on the zygoma, nose, and
chin.(A)
1 and 2 only (C)
2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
When
the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed
horizontally, the patient is said to be in the
(A) Trendelenburg
position. (C)
decubitus position.
(B)
Fowler's position. (D) Sims position.
Which
of the following is located at the interspace between the fourth and
fifth thoracic vertebrae?
(A) Manubrium (C)
Sternal angle
(B)
Jugular notch (D) Xiphoid process
In
the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5º
cephalad in order to prevent superimposition of which of the
following structures on the joint space?
(A) Lateral femoral
condyle (C) Patella(B)
Medial femoral condyle (D)
Tibial eminence
The
manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the
(A)
fifth thoracic vertebra. (C) T4-5 interspace.(B)
T2-3 interspace. (D)
costal margin.
The
apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with
the
(A) coronal plane 45º to the film. (C)
coronal plane 70º to the film.
(B)
midsagittal plane 45º to the film. (D) midsagittal plane 70º to
the film.
To
demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in(A)
the recumbent position. (C)
the anatomic position.
(B) the erect position. (D) Fowler's
position.
With
which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
(A) Fifth
metacarpal (C) Distal radius(B)
First metacarpal (D)
Distal ulna
The
short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral
body are the
(A) transverse processes. (C) laminae.
(B)
vertebral arches. (D)
pedicles.
Which
of the following is recommended in order to better demonstrate the
tarso-metatarsal joints in the dorsoplantar projection of the
foot?
(A) Invert the foot (C)
Angle the central ray 10º posteriorly
(B)
Evert the foot (D) Angle the central ray 10º anteriorly
The
AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the
femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the
affected thigh
(A) adducted 25º from the horizontal. (C)
adducted 40º from the horizontal.
(B) abducted 25º from the
vertical. (D)
abducted 40º from the vertical.
Which
of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the
femur?
1. Intercondyloid fossa
2. Intertrochanteric crest
3.
Intertubercular groove
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
2 and 3 only
Place
the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to
posterior:
1. Trachea
2. Apex of heart
3. Esophagus
(A)
Trachea, esophagus, apex of heart (C)
Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus
(B)
Esophagus, trachea, apex of heart (D) Apex of heart, esophagus,
trachea
The
usual patient preparation for an upper GI series is
(A) clear
fluids 8 h prior to exam. (C) enemas until clear before exam.(B)
NPO after midnight. (D)
light breakfast the day of the exam.
The
tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long
bone in an adult is
(A) red marrow. (C) cortical tissue.(B)
yellow marrow. (D)
cancellous tissue.
In
order to better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position,
the
(A) skull is obliqued toward the affected side.
(B) skull
is obliqued away from the affected side.(C)
central ray is angled cephalad.
(D)
central ray is angled caudad.
Which
of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body
type?
1. Short, wide, transverse heart
2. High and peripheral
large bowel
3. Diaphragm positioned low(A)
1 and 2 only (C)
2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the
cervical spine?
1. Intervertebral disk spaces
2. C3-7 cervical
bodies
3. Apophyseal joints
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3
only(B)
1 and 2 only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following positions would best demonstrate the left
apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?(A)
LPO (C)
Left lateral
(B) RPO (D) PA
Double-contrast
examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better
visualize the
(A) position of the organ. (C) diverticula.
(B)
size and shape of the organ. (D)
gastric or bowel mucosa.
Which
of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
1.
Knee
2. Intervertebral joints
3. Temporomandibular joint
(TMJ)
(A) 1 only (C)
1 and 3 only
(B)
2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following positions is required in order to demonstrate small
amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity?
(A) Lateral
decubitus, affected side up (C) AP Trendelenburg(B)
Lateral decubitus, affected side down (D)
AP supine
When
the erect position is requested as part of an IVP, it is used to
demonstrate
(A) the adrenal glands. (C)
kidney mobility.
(B)
the renal surfaces. (D) the bladder neck.
Which
of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the
coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process
within the olecranon fossa?
(A) AP (C)
Medial oblique
(B)
Lateral (D) Lateral oblique
Blowout
fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the
(A)
lateral projection of the facial bones.(B)
parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
(C)
posteroanterior projection with a 15º caudal angle.
(D) Sweet's
localization method.
Which
of the following examinations involves the introduction of a
radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?
(A)
Retrograde pyelogram (C)
Hysterosalpingogram
(B)
Voiding cystourethrogram (D) Myelogram
Which
of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to
evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
1.
The sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical.
2. The sternum
is seen lateral without rotation.
3. Ten anterior ribs are
demonstrated above the diaphragm.(A)
1 only (C)
1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral
apophyseal articulation?
(A) AP (C)
30º RPO
(B)
Lateral (D) 45º LPO
Angulation
of the central ray may be required
1. to avoid superimposition of
overlying structures.
2. to avoid foreshortening or
self-superimposition.
3. in order to project through certain
articulations.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2
only (D)
1, 2, and 3
Shoulder
arthrography may be performed to evaluate
(A) humeral
dislocation. (C) osteoarthritis.(B)
complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears. (D)
acromioclavicular joint separation.
In
the lateral projection of the ankle, the
1. talotibial joint is
visualized.
2. talofibular joint is visualized.
3. tibia and
fibula are superimposed.
(A) 1 only (C)
1 and 3 only
(B)
1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
What
should you do if you discover while taking the patient history that
a patient scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) takes
Glucophage (metformin hydrochloride) daily?
1. Proceed with the
exam.
2. Reschedule the exam until the patient has been off
Glucophage for 48h.
3. Instruct the patient to withhold the
Glucophage for 48 h after the exam.
(A) 1 only (C)
1 and 3 only
(B)
1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Which
of the following are part of the bony thorax?
1. 12 thoracic
vertebrae
2. Scapulae
3. 24 ribs
(A) 1 only (C)
1 and 3 only
(B)
1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
In
order to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the
patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45º(A)
toward the affected side. (C)
with the arm at the side in the anatomic position.
(B) away from
the affected side. (D) with the arm in external rotation.
Which
of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous,
glandular breast tissue?(A)
A postpubertal adolescent (C)
A menopausal woman
(B) A 20 year old with one previous
pregnancy (D) A postmenopausal 65 year old
Which
type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?
(A)
Synarthrodial (C) Amphiarthrodial(B)
Diarthrodial (D)
Cartilaginous
Which
of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?
1.
The heads of the first row of phalanges
2. The cuboid
3. The
cuneiforms
(A) 1 only (C)
2 and 3 only
(B)
1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
Standard
radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right
angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
(A)
Barium examinations (C) Skull radiography
(B) Spine
radiography (D)
Emergency and trauma radiography
Which
of the following is (are) effective in reducing breast exposure
during scoliosis examinations?
1. Use of a high-speed imaging
system
2. Use of breast shields
3. Use of compensating
filtration
(A) 1 only (C) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2
only (D)
1, 2, and 3
A
flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to
demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the
patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70º
(rather than the desired 90º). How should the central ray be
directed?
(A) Perpendicular to the film (C) 20º caudad(B)
Parallel to the floor (D)
20º cephalad
Prior
to the start of an IV urogram, which of the following procedures
should be carried out?
1. Have patient empty the bladder.
2.
Review the patient's allergy history.
3. Check the patient's
creatinine level.
(A) 1 only (C) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2
only (D)
1, 2, and 3
What
angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and the film in the
parietoorbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal?
(A)
90º (C)
53º
(B)
37º (D) 45º
During
a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford
the best double-contrast visualization of both colic flexures?
(A)
LAO and RPO (C) Left lateral decubitus
(B) Lateral (D)
AP or PA erect
Aspirated
foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge
in the(A)
right main bronchus. (C)
esophagus.
(B) left main bronchus. (D) proximal stomach.
The
contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with
forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called
(A)
hypertension. (C)
pulse.
(B)
elasticity. (D) pressure.
Which
of the following devices should not be removed before positioning
for a radiograph?
1. A ring when performing hand radiography
2.
An antishock garment
3. A pneumatic splint
(A) 1 and 2 (C)
2 and 3
(B)
1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, and 3
A.
Tibiofemoral joint
B.
Coxalfemoral joint
C.
Talocurural joint
D.
Sacroiliac joint
2.
Which type of joint is the
tibiofemoral?
A.
Ball-and-socket
B.
Ellipsoid
C.
Modified hinge
D.
Hinge
3.
What is the superficial
bone extending down the front of the leg?
A.
Femur
B.
Fibula
C.
Tibia
D. Patella
4. What
is the name of the more lateral bone, buried deep to muscle tissue,
extending down the leg?
A.
Femur
B.
Fibula
C.
Tibia
D. Patella
5. What bony structure sinks
between the proximal tibia and femoral condyles during flexion of the
knee?
A.
Talus
B.
Head of the fibula
C.
Tibial tuberosity
D. Patella
6. What
is the bony landmark distal to the patella?
A.
Adductor tubercle
B.
Head of the fibula
C.
Tibial tuberosity
D. Femoral condyle
7. When
you place your fingers on either side of the patella and slide
inferiorly until you feel an edge of bone, what landmark are you
palpating?
A.
Head of the fibula
B.
Tibial plateaus
C.
Tibial tuberosity
D. Tibial tubercle
8. How
many bones comprise of the foot?
A.
14
B.
18
C.
24
D. 28
9. What is the name of the bone
that forms the heel of the foot?
A. Talus
B. Calcaneus
C. Cuboid
D. Navicular
10. Which
bone articulates with the tibia and fibula?
A. Cuneiform
B. Calcaneus
C. Talus
D. Navicular
11. What
are those large, conspicuous knobs on either side of the ankle?
A. Tarsals
B. Malleolar grooves
C. Lateral and medical malleoli
D. Metatarsals
12. Which bony landmark is
located directly between the navicular tubercle and medical maleolus?
A.
Head of the talus
B.
Sustentaculum tali
C.
Trochlea of the talus
D.
Peroneal tubercle
13.
The
foramen magnum is located in this bone.
A.
sphenoid
B.
ethmoid
C.
temporal
D.
occipital
E.
1st cervical vertebra
14.
The
mandible articulates with this bone:
A.
Zygomatic
B.
Maxillae
C.
Temporal
D.
Sphenoid
15.
The
thinnest portion of the cranium is located here:
A.
Frontal sinus
B.
Ciribrum plate
C.
Occipital condyle
D.
Sagittal suture
16.
.
How many bones are in the vertebral column?
A.
26
B.
24
C.
22
D.
20
17. The
largest sinuses in the skull are the:
A.
Mastoid sinuses
B.
Sphenoid sinuses
C.
Maxillary sinuses
D.
Frontal sinuses
18. How
many cervical vertebrae are in the spinal column?
A.
5
B.
7
C.
9
D.
12
19. Which
cranial bone articulates with all other cranial bones?
A.
Frontal
B.
Occipital
C.
Temporal
D.
Sphenoid
E.
Ethmoid
20. Your
"ear hole" is located in which cranial bone:
A.
Sphenoid
B.
Parietal
C.
Occipital
D.
Zygomatic
E.
Temporal
21.
The
largest portion of the sternum is the:
A.
Manubrium
B.
Gladiolus
C.
Xiphoid process
D.
Jugular notch
22. How
many bones are in the axial skeleton?
A.
80
B.
90
C.
102
D.
120
23. This
bone forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum:
A.
Ethmoid
B.
Palatine
C.
Vomer
D.
Inferior nasal concha
24. Most
of the "cheek" of the face is formed by this bone:
A.
Zygomatic
B.
Facial
C.
Maxilla
D.
Temporal
25. The
rounded bony process that can be palpated behind your ear is the:
A.
Occipital
B.
Mastoid process
C.
Mandibular process
D.
Occipital protuberance
26.
Premature closure of the cranial sutures during infancy can result in
this disorder:
A.
Cleft palate
B.
Hydrocephalus
C.
Microchephalus
D.
Spina bifida
27. How
many pairs of "false" ribs are in the thoracic cage?
A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
5
28.
Where
is the hyoid bone located?
A.
In the nasal cavity
B.
Just superior to the larynx
C.
In the middle ear
D.
At the proximal portion of the coccyx
29. Which
of the following structures is lacking from all thoracic vertebrae?
A.
Superior articular process
B.
Pedicle
C.
Transverse process
D.
Transverse costal facet
E.
Transverse foramen
30.
This
structure houses the pituitary gland:
A.
Crista galli
B.
Ciribrum plate
C.
Sella turcica
D.
Sphenoid sinus
E.
Foramen rotundum
31.
Which
of the following structures is incorrectly paired with its
corresponding bone?
A.
Dens: C1
B.
Pterygoid process: sphenoid
C.
Clavicular notch: sternum
D.
Coronoid process: mandible
E.
Coronoid process: Mandible
32.
This
passageway connects the nasal cavity and the orbit:
A.
Hypoglossal canal
B.
Inferior orbital fissure
C.
Lacrimal canal
D.
Infraorbital foramen
33.
How
many total bones make up the cranium?
A.
6
B.
7
C.
8
D.
12
34.
This
spike-like structure is located at the inferior portion of the
sternum:
A.
Styloid process
B.
Xiphoid process
C.
Sternal process
D.
Spinous process
35.
This
single bone is located medially to the eyes and forms the roof of the
nasal cavity:
A.
Sphenoud
B.
Vomer
C.
Nasal
D.
Ethmoid
36.
This
cranial suture separates the occipital and parietal bones:
A.
Lamboidal
B.
Coronal
C.
Sagittal
D.
Squamous
37. This
bony structure connects the bodies of most vertebra to the laminae:
A.
Transverse process
B.
Pedicle
C.
Spinous process
D.
Dens
38.
Which facial bone articulates with all other facial bones except the
mandible?
A.
Maxilla
B.
Vomer
C.
Zygomatic
D.
Palatine
E.
Lacrimal
39. Which
of the following bones does not directly contribute to the formation
of the orbit?
A.
Vomer
B.
Zygomatic
C.
Sphenoid
D.
Ethmoid
E.
Palatine
40. The
occipital bone is where this structure is located:
A.
Ciribrum plate
B.
Optic foramen
C.
Superior orbital fissure
D.
Foramen magnum
E.
Carotid canal
41.
Which
of the following bones does the temporal bone NOT articulate with?
A.
Zygomatic
B.
Maxillae
C.
Frontal
D.
Sphenoid
42.
How
many bones are in the vertebral column?
A.
26
B.
24
C.
22
D.
20
43.
The
largest sinuses in the skull are the:
A.
Mastoid sinuses
B.
Sphenoid sinuses
C.
Maxillary sinuses
D.
Frontal sinuses
44.
This
cranial suture separates the occipital and parietal bones:
A.
Lamboidal
B.
Coronal
C.
Sagittal
D.
Squamous
45.
This
single bone is located medially to the eyes and forms the roof of the
nasal cavity:
A.
Sphenoid
B.
Vomer
C.
Nasal
D.
Ethmoid
46.
How
many pairs of "floating" ribs are in the thoracic cage?
A.
5
B.
4
C.
3
D.
2
47.
Which
of the following is not a cranial bone?
A.
Sphenoid
B.
Ethmoid
C.
Parietal
D.Maxilla
48.
The
suture between the parietal and temporal bones is the ________
suture.
A.
Coronal
B.
Lambdoid
C.
Sagittal
D.
Squamous
49.
The
mastoid process belongs to which bone?
A.
Sphenoid
B.
Ethmoid
C.
Temporal
D.
Frontal
50.
This
vertebra has no body.
A.
Atlas
B.
Axis
C.
Thoracic
D.
Sacrum
Part IV:
